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UPSC DCIO Previous Year Question Paper, Answer Key 2018

UPSC DCIO Previous Year Question Paper & Answer Key 2018: Union Public Service Commission has released previous year question paper with answer key for Deputy Central Intelligence Officer. We have collected the same and posted for easy reference of the candidates. So candidates can make use of this and prepare for their upcoming UPSC DCIO Computer Based Recruitment Test which is held on 08th March 2020.

UPSC DCIO Admit Card 2020 – Download here

UPSC DCIO Syllabus 2020 – Check here

UPSC DCIO Previous Cut-Off Marks 2018 – Check here

UPSC DCIO Previous Year Question Paper:

General Aptitude Test (DCIO)

CBRT- held on 21st January 2018 (A/N)

1. If twice the Son’s age in years is added to Father’s age, the sum is 70 years. And if twice the Father’s age is added to the Son’s age, the sum is 95 years. The age of Father and Son are:

(a) 45 Years and 15 Years
(b) 40 Years and 15 Years
(c) 40 Years and 20 Years
(d) 45 Years and 20 Years

2. In a Cricket match Kapil took one wicket less than twice the number of wickets taken by Ravi. If the product of the number of wickets taken by these two players is 15, the number of wickets taken by Kapil and Ravi respectively are:

(a) 5 and 3
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 5 and 4
(d) 4 and 5

3. A chord AB of a circle of radius 10 cm makes a right angle at the centre of the circle. The area of the minor segment is:

(a) 78.5 cm2
(b) 50.0 cm2
(c) 40.0 cm2
(d) 28.5 cm2

4. A cone of height 24 cm has a curved surface area 550 cm2. Its volume is:

(a) 1332 cm3
(b) 1232 cm3
(c) 1132 cm3
(d) 1322 cm3

5. What number must be added to each of the number 7, 16, 43 and 79 to make the numbers in proportion?

(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3

6. The area of the curve r = a (1 − cos 𝜃) is:

(a) a2𝜋 / 2
(b) 5a2𝜋 / 2
(c) 4a2𝜋 / 2
(d) 3a2𝜋 / 2

7. The value of integral 01 e2x.x2dx is:

(a) e2 / 4
(b) e2 / 2
(c) e2−1 / 2
(d) e2−1 / 4

8. The distance of the point (1, −2, 3) from the plane 𝑥 – 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 5 measured parallel to the line, 𝑥/2 = 𝑦/3 = 𝑧/−6 is:

(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 1/3
(d) 2

9. In an LPP: Minimize 𝑍 = 3 𝑥1 + 2 𝑥2

Subject to: 5𝑥1 + 𝑥2 ≥ 10
𝑥1 + 𝑥2 ≥ 6
𝑥1 + 𝑥2 ≥ 12
𝑥1, 𝑥2 ≥ 0

The values of𝑥1 and 𝑥2 respectively, are:

(a) 5 and 1
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 3 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

10. The energy required for a satellite to leave its orbit around the earth and escape to infinity is called:

(a) Potential energy
(b) Binding energy
(c) Gravitational energy
(d) Positive energy

11. Which of the following characteristics are required by the medium for transfer of energy to take place?

1. Elastic property
2. Property of inertia
3. Large frictional resistance

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. A substance undergoes a change in pressure or volume but no heat is allowed to enter or leave. Such a change is known as:

(a) Isothermal change
(b) Reversible change
(c) Irreversible change
(d) Adiabatic change

13. Which of the following are non-polar molecules?

1. Oxygen (𝑂2)
2. Nitrogen(𝑁2)
3. Hydrogen (𝐻2)

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. A transparent plate of thickness 10−5𝑚 is placed in the path of interfering beam of bi-prism experiment using light of wavelength 500 𝑛𝑚. If the central fringe shifts by a distance equal to the width of 10 fringes, then the refractive index of the material of the plate is:

(a) 1.10
(b) 1.35
(c) 1.85
(d) 1.50

15. What is the highest order spectrum which may be seen with monochromatic light of wavelength 600 𝑛𝑚 by means of diffraction grating with 5000 lines/𝑐𝑚?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

16. A diffraction grating has 0.15 𝑚 of surface ruled with 6 × 105 lines/𝑚, the refractive index of first order is:

(a) 9 × 106
(b) 6 × 105
(c) 9 × 104
(d) 6 × 103

17. Wavelength 𝜆 associated with a moving particle depends on its mass 𝑚, velocity of motion 𝑣 and Plank’s constant ℎ . then the wavelength is proportional to:

(a) ℎ2 / 𝑚𝑣
(b) ℎ / 𝑚𝑣2
(c) ℎ / 𝑚𝑣
(d) ℎ / 𝑚2𝑣

18. A reversible engine takes in a mixture of fuel and air at 27° 𝐶 and the highest temperature after combustion is 427° 𝐶. What is the Carnot’s efficiency of the engine working between these two temperature limits?

(a) 52.7 %
(b) 57.1 %
(c) 47.1 %
(d) 42.7 %

19. What resistance must be connected in series with an inductor of 5 millihenry so that the circuit has a time constant of 2 × 10-3sec?

(a) 1.5 Ω
(b) 4.5 Ω
(c) 3.5 Ω
(d) 2.5 Ω

20. The luminous efficiency of a lamp is 5 lumen/watt and its power is 88 watt. What is the illuminance on a surface placed at a distance of 10 𝑚, when the light is falling normally?

(a) 0.35 lux
(b) 0.6 lux
(c) 0.5 lux
(d) 0.45 lux

21. A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times the radius of curvature of either surface. The refractive index of lens is:

(a) 1.55
(b) 1.65
(c) 1.75
(d) 1.85

22. An audio signal of amplitude 0.1 𝑉 is used in amplitude modulation of a carrier wave of amplitude 0.2 𝑉. The modulation index is:

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.7

23. Consider the following:

1. Byte
2. Double
3. Long
4. Short

Which of the above are the valid integer types of JAVA?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

24. In JAVA, the math class has a powerful method, which generates a random value:

(a) Greater than or equal to 0.0 and less than 1.0
(b) Greater than or equal to 0.0 and less than or equal to 1.0
(c) Greater than 1.0
(d) Less than or equal to 1.0

25. In JAVA, ‘‘Welcome’’. replaceFirst (“e”, “AB”) returns a new string:

(a) WABlcomAB
(b) WABlcome
(c) Welcome
(d) WABLCOME

26. An object whose contents cannot be changed once the object is created is called:

(a) Immutable object
(b) Mutable object
(c) Smart object
(d) Rich object

27. Which one of the following fundamental features of the OOPS is not supported by 𝐶++?

(a) Persistence
(b) Delegation
(c) Genericity
(d) Data abstraction

28. Which one of the following features is supported by 𝐶++ but not by JAVA?

(a) Encapsulation
(b) Multiple inheritance
(c) Concurrency
(d) Garbage collection

29. Consider the following statements regarding JAVA:

1. It is a high performance programming language
2. It does not support pointers
3. It omits features that make 𝐶++ complex
4. It provides platform-dependent solution

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

30. Consider the following features regarding 𝐶++:

1. Emphasis on algorithm rather than data
2. Improvement over the structural programming paradigm
3. Relationship can be created between similar, yet distinct data types

Which of the above features are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. A mobile is located 5 km away from a base station and makes use of a vertical ¼ monopole antenna with a gain of 2.55 dB to receive cellular radio signals. The E-field at 1 km from the transmitter is measured to be 10−3 𝑉/𝑚 . The carrier frequency used for this system is 900 MHz, the length and the effective apertures of the receiving antenna are nearly:

(a) 0.05 𝑚 and 0.01 𝑚2
(b) 0.08 𝑚 and 0.01 𝑚2
(c) 0.05 𝑚 and 0.06 𝑚2
(d) 0.08 𝑚 and 0.06 𝑚2

32. What is the far field distance for an antenna with largest dimension 1.5 𝑚 and the corresponding frequency of 1200 MHz?

(a) 12 𝑚
(b) 3 𝑚
(c) 6 𝑚
(d) 8 𝑚

33. The block length and size of check code in Reed-Solomon code for 𝑚 = 2 and 𝑡 = 1 are respectively:

(a) 4 bits and 6 bits
(b) 6 bits and 6 bits
(c) 4 bits and 4 bits
(d) 6 bits and 4 bits

34. What is the total power 𝑃𝑇 in amplitude modulated signal (AM) , if the modulation indices are 0.3, 0.2, 0.5 and 0.6, where the carrier signal power is 28 Watts?

(a) 38.36 Watts
(b) 28.26 Watts
(c) 32.16 Watts
(d) 18.89 Watts

35. A telephone voice transmission needs transmission of recurrences up to 3.6 kHz, the broadcast video using North American standard needs transmission of frequencies upto 4.5 MHz. If certain modulation scheme requires 10 kHz for its audio transmission, the bandwidth required to transmit video using the same scheme is:

(a) 08.5 MHz
(b) 10.0 MHz
(c) 12.5 MHz
(d) 15.0 MHz

36. A vehicle travels through the cellular mobile system at 150 kmph. How often handoffs take place if the cell radius is 4 km?

(a) 192.3 sec
(b) 180.3 sec
(c) 163.5 sec
(d) 150.9 sec

37. A truck travels at 65 km in 1 hour and if it uses a PCS phone at 1900 MHz, the time period between the fades is:

(a) 5.9 m/sec
(b) 4.4 m/sec
(c) 8.3 m/sec
(d) 6.1 m/sec

38. What is the bandwidth efficiency if a 𝜋/4 DQ PSK supports data transmission of three various 48.6 kB/sec digitized voice signal in a bandwidth of 30 kHz?

(a) 6.66 bytes/sec/Hz
(b) 5.75 bytes/sec/Hz
(c) 4.86 bytes/sec/Hz
(d) 3.96 bytes/sec/Hz

39. The bandwidth of a network is 1 Gbps, the distance between sender and the receiver is 12,000 km and light travels at 2.4 × 108 𝑚/𝑠, the propagation time and transmission time for a 2.5 kB message (an e-mail) are:

(a) 50 ms and 40 ms
(b) 40 ms and 40 ms
(c) 50 ms and 0.02 ms
(d) 40 ms and 0.02 ms

40. A bandwidth of 100 kHz spans 200 kHz to 300 kHz. If the data is modulated by using ASK with 𝑑 = 1 and 𝑟 = 1 the carrier frequency and bit rates are:

(a) 110 kHz and 30kbps
(b) 100 kHz and 50kbps
(c) 110 kHz and 50kbps
(d) 100 kHz and 30kbps

41. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps. If the system with all stations together produces 1000 frames/s, the throughput is: (Assuming 𝑆 = 0.135 (13.5%))

(a) 135 frames
(b) 140 frames
(c) 145 frames
(d) 150 frames

42. A network using CSMA/CD has a bandwidth of 10 Mbps. If the maximum propagation time including the delays in the devices and ignoring the time needed to send a jamming signal is 25.6 𝜇s, the minimum size of the frame is:

(a) 256 bits
(b) 1024 bits
(c) 128 bits
(d) 512 bits

43. The data rate of an STS-1 signal is:

(a) 155.52 Mbps
(b) 51.84 Mbps
(c) 100 Mbps
(d) 150 Mbps

44. In an IPv4 packet, the value of HLEN is (1000)2. The number of bytes of options carried by the packet is:

(a) 08 bytes
(b) 16 bytes
(c) 02 bytes
(d) 12 bytes

45. In a stop-and-Wait system, the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps, 1 bit takes 20 ms to make a round trip and the system data packets are 1000 bits in length. The bandwidth-delay product and the utilization of the link are:

(a) 10,000 bits and 5 %
(b) 20,000 bits and 10 %
(c) 10,000 bits and 10 %
(d) 20,000 bits and 5 %

46. The frequency 𝑓 , peak-voltage amplitude 𝑉 and phase 𝜃 for the voltage waveform, 𝑣(𝑡) = 6 sin(2𝜋 10,000 𝑡 + 30) are:

(a) 20 kHz, 6 volts and 45°
(b) 10 kHz, 6 volts and 30°
(c) 20 kHz, 3 volts and 30°
(d) 10 kHz, 3 volts and 45°

47. For a binary FSK signal with mark frequency of 49 kHz, space frequency of 51 kHz and an input bit rate of 2 kbps, the peak frequency deviation ∆𝑓, the minimum bandwidth 𝐵 and the baud, are:

(a) 3 kHz, 9 kHz and 1000
(b) 3 kHz, 9 kHz and 2000
(c) 1 kHz, 6 kHz and 2000
(d) 1 kHz, 6 kHz and 1000

48. What is the length of an ICMP data field for an Ethernet frame that is carrying an IP datagram with a 20 byte header, an ICMP message with a header length of 8 bytes and the Ethernet data field is 480 bytes long?

(a) 452 bytes
(b) 480 bytes
(c) 256 bytes
(d) 280 bytes

49. For a single-channel PCM system with sample rate 𝑓𝑠 = 6000 samples per second and 7 bit compressed PCM code, the line speed is:

(a) 42,000 bps
(b) 32,000 bps
(c) 22,000 bps
(d) 12,000 bps

50. For an UART receiving data at 1000 bps (𝑓𝑏 ) with a receiver clock 16 times faster than the incoming data, the bit time, the receive clock rate and the maximum detection error are:

(a) 1 𝑚s, 8 kHz and 62.5 𝜇s
(b) 3 𝑚s, 8 kHz and 66.5 𝜇s
(c) 1 𝑚s, 16 kHz and 62.5 𝜇s
(d) 3 𝑚s, 16 kHz and 66.5 𝜇s

51. Which one of the following is used in banks, business and networks all over the world for security aspects?

(a) AES
(b) DES
(c) RSA
(d) NIST

52. IDEA stands for:

(a) Information Digital Encryption Agency
(b) International Digital Encryption Algorithm
(c) Information Data Encryption Agency
(d) International Data Encryption Algorithm

53. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a cryptosystem intended for use of:

(a) Voice security
(b) E-mail security
(c) Internet security
(d) Bank security

54. Microsoft cryptographic providers support three hash algorithms are:

(a) MD2, MD3 and secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
(b) MD4, MD5 and secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
(c) MD1, MD2 and secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)
(d) MD3, MD4 and secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)

55. S/MIME stands for:

(a) Secure Mobile Internet Mail Extension
(b) Service Mobile Internet Multipurpose Extension
(c) System Multipurpose Internet Mobile Extension
(d) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension

56. Biometric characteristics cannot be directly used as cryptographic key, because biometric images are:

(a) Difficult to obtain
(b) Difficult to process
(c) Difficult to recognize
(d) Variable by nature

57. The operations performed in AES algorithm for each round are:

1. Substitute bytes
2. Shift columns
3. Mix rows
4. Add round key

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

58. A stream cipher is designed to operate:

(a) On a block of plain text
(b) One bit or units larger than a byte at a time
(c) One that has a sequence of rounds
(d) One block of data at a time

59. In the Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) mode, the input to the encryption algorithm is:

(a) The each plain text block encoded using same key
(b) The each plain text block encoded using different key
(c) The XOR of the current plain text block and the preceding cipher text block, same key used for each block
(d) The XOR of the current plain text block and the preceding cipher text block, different key used for each block

60. Message Authentification Code (MAC) is:

(a) Accepting a variable size message 𝑀𝑀 as input and producing a fixed size message digest 𝐻𝐻(𝑀𝑀) as output
(b) Using a secret key to generate a small block of data
(c) The statistical structure of the plain text dissipated into long range statistics of the cipher text
(d) A technique in which chosen plain texts with particular XOR difference pattern are encrypted

61. The principal attraction of Elliptical Curve Cryptography is (ECC):

(a) Reducing processing time
(b) A smaller bit size reducing processing overhead
(c) Reducing computation
(d) Increasing security

62. An information security policy provides rules for the protection of:

(a) Internet security
(b) Information assets of an organization
(c) E-mail security
(d) Voice security

63. Design, selection and implementation of all security program elements including policy and risk measurement programs, education and training programs, technological controls and maintenance of the security program is referred as:

(a) Security Blueprint
(b) Security Framework
(c) Security Policy
(d) Security Management

64. Firewalls can be characterized by:

(a) Processing mode, development era and structure
(b) Packet filtering and application gateways
(c) Trusted network and structure
(d) Processing mode and Packet filtering

65. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems (IDPS) are:

(a) Host based systems only
(b) Network based systems only
(c) Network based systems or Host based systems
(d) Special security systems

66. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The Company is getting rid of:

(a) Damp squib and retaining only productive workers
(b) Guinea-pig and retaining only productive workers
(c) Warts and all and retaining only productive workers
(d) Dead wood and retaining only productive workers

67. The channel of communication in Science and Technology has which of the following elements?

1. Hearing
2. Touching
3. Tasting
4. Knowledge

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

68. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Serried’ ?

(a) Notched
(b) Scattered
(c) Pursed
(d) Packed together

69. Which one of the following statement is grammatically correct with usage of words?

(a) My aunt bereaved Rs. 5,00,000 in her will to cancer research
(b) If I remember rightly she had two brothers, both older than her
(c) If you want information about the publisher of this book, you can accede their website
(d) Eating all those Peanuts has attacked my appetite

70. Which one of the following is the opposite meaning of ‘Braggart’ ?

(a) Modest
(b) Harangue
(c) Adept
(d) Competent

71. ‘Tinu is happy because she scored good marks’. The word ‘because’ is:

(a) Interjection
(b) Preposition
(c) Conjunction
(d) Adjective

72. Which one of the following word is correctly spelt?

(a) Ubiquitous
(b) Unasailable
(c) Unanimus
(d) Unenyviable

73. ‘After the approbation by the council, the due procedure would come into play’. Which one of the following correctly sums up the underlined expression?

(a) Proper hearing
(b) Negotiation
(c) Approval
(d) Settlement

74. ‘He is loquacious. So people avoid him’. Which one of the following correctly defines the underlined word?

(a) One who hates mankind
(b) One who loves women
(c) One who loves to talk
(d) One who hates to love

75. ‘It appears that we are going to win’. Which one of the following is the appropriate question tag that should follow the sentence?

(a) Doesn’t it?
(b) Don’t we?
(c) Do we?
(d) Doesn’t we?

76. The judge ordered him to restrain ‘to’ entering the premises of his office. Which one of the following will improve the sentence?

(a) Off
(b) Of
(c) With
(d) From

77. Consider the following sentences:

1. The introduction to the U.N. Charter expresses
2. Whose Governments joined together to form the U.N.
3. In one long sentence
4. The ideas and common aims of all the people

What is the correct sequence?

(a) 3, 4, 1 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(c) 3, 1, 4 and 2
(d) 2, 4, 1 and 3

78. Consider the following sentences:

1. The people will make him king
2. Promises should be kept
3. I am sometimes vexed at his behaviour
4. The audience loudly cheered the Mayor’s speech

Which of the above sentences are in Active Voice?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

79. The information about the conceptual, external and physical schema is stored in:

(a) System catalogs
(b) System files
(c) File allocation tables
(d) Configuration systems

80. In Entity-Relationship (ER) model, an Aggregation allows to indicate:

(a) A relationship set to participate in another relationship set
(b) The monitor’s relationship set
(c) A weak entity set
(d) The owner of the entity

81. A candidate key for the relation in a Database Management System can be defined as:

(a) The subset of the set of fields in a key which is a unique identifier for a tuple
(b) A set of fields that uniquely identifies a tuple according to the key constant
(c) Two tuples which have identical values in all the fields
(d) A field of relation is a unique identifier for a tuple

82. The conceptual schema is the collection of schemes of the relations stored in:

(a) Tables
(b) Database
(c) Decision tree
(d) Files

83. In Database Management System (DBMS) architecture, the buffer manager is the software layer which is responsible for:

(a) Bringing pages from disk to the main memory
(b) Holding the slot of the page
(c) Transferring the pages to primary memory
(d) Sequencing the pages

84. A data structure that organizes the data records on a disk to optimize certain kinds of retrieval operations is known as:

(a) Decision tree
(b) Indexing
(c) File allocation tables
(d) Records

85. Which of the following operation is/are used in the equality operators to join the two relations?

1. Normal join
2. Equijoin

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. The query optimization in Database Management System (DBMS) is responsible for identifying:

(a) An efficient execution plan with the least estimated cost
(b) The tuples and fields
(c) The number of records present in database
(d) The non-relationship of the database

87. Which of the following rules is/are associated with Armstrong’s Axioms for finding the functional dependency(FD)?

1. Reflexivity
2. Augmentation
3. Transitivity

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

88. Fourth Normal Form (4𝑁F) is designed to cope up with:

(a) Multivalued dependency
(b) Join dependency
(c) Transitive dependency
(d) Both Join and Transitive dependency

89. Information warfare must be dealt with:

(a) Continuously because the potential damage or disruption is so high
(b) Immediately because the potential damage or disruption is so high
(c) Ahead of time because the potential damage or disruption is so high
(d) Diplomatically because the potential damage or disruption is so high

90. While national power grid may be necessary for transmitting huge blocks of power from one region to the other, which one of the following systems would still be required to serve the large number of villages and isolated communities?

(a) Grid connected stand alone
(b) Non- grid connected stand alone
(c) Grid connected service
(d) Non-grid connected service

91. Energy Audit to be made compulsory for industries so that it helps to focus the essential requirements of energy:

(a) Consumption
(b) Conservation
(c) Cost
(d) Generation

92. Which one of the following type of freezing is preferred so that temperatures are rapidly lowered to 0°𝐹 (−18°𝐶) for keeping the ice crystals small, so that upon defrosting, the food is not mushy?

(a) Deep
(b) Slow
(c) Quick
(d) Blast

93. With which one of the following technology, a single disc format is used for computer data, video and audio?

(a) Digital Audio Tape (DAT)
(b) Video Tape (VT)
(c) Compact Disc (CD)
(d) Digital video Disc (DVD)

94. Carbon dioxide lasers do not penetrate into the surfaces; they are used for which one of the following tumors in body sites where underlying structures would otherwise be in danger of damage?

(a) Cutting
(b) Vaporizing
(c) Liquidifying
(d) Crystallizing

95. A method that can be used to transfer information in a manner that violates the system’s security policy is:

(a) Secrete channels
(b) Carrier channels
(c) Co-channels
(d) Covert channels

96. Which one of the following Operating Systems (OS) is the process of security configuring a system to protect it against malicious users and software, but also making the system more reliable?

(a) Design Operating Systems
(b) Security Operating Systems
(c) Hardening Operating Systems
(d) Protocol Operating Systems

97. Which one of the following is the use of specialized techniques for recovery,
Authentification and analysis of electronic data when a case involves issues relating to reconstruction of computer usage?

(a) Computer Analysis
(b) Image Processing
(c) Wire Trapping
(d) Computer Forensics

98. Which one of the following modes has revolutionized the informational use of crime data?

(a) Digital Imaging
(b) Digital Processing
(c) Data Mining (DM)
(d) Digital Analysis

99. Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the construction of artificial brains – electronic system:

(a) That replicates the exact functioning of biological neurons, their arrangement and interaction with the brain
(b) Construction of electronic system similar to the human brain
(c) That reacts with interaction with the brain
(d) Similar to brain without interaction with the brain

100. The hydrogen atom is unusual in:

(a) One proton, one neutron and no electron
(b) Not having any neutron
(c) One electron, one neutron and no proton
(d) Only electron, no proton and no neutron

UPSC DCIO Answer Key 2018:

UPSC DCIO Answer Key for CBRT held on 21st January 2018 AN (2-4) PM:

General Aptitude Test:

DCIO Wireless Telegraphy Engineering:

Max Marks: 300

Items Dropped: 01

Items for Scoring: 99

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8B23D38C53B68D83A98C
9B24A39C54B69B84B99A
10B25B40B55D70A85B100B
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Important Links of UPSC DCIO Previous Question Paper, Answer Key 2018:

Note:- Some symbols in above Questions are not supported in Mobile browsers making the questions incomplete, So candidates shall make use of below official PDFs to avoid any confusions.

Official UPSC DCIO Previous Question Paper 2018 PDFClick here
Official UPSC DCIO Answer Key 2018 PDFClick here

5 COMMENTS

    • Hi Ashok Kumar,

      Previously UPSC recruited candidates for DCIO in the year 2018. In 2018 there were total of 2697 candidates appeared for the CBRT (Computer Based Recruitment Test) out of which 6 candidates were selected. This year DCIO notification is out for 27 candidates. So a minimum of 10,000 candidates may appear for this year’s CBRT. But this is a rough number. You can check the previous year cut-off in below link.

      UPSC DCIO Previous Year Cut-Off Marks 2018 – Check here

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