AffairsCloud brings you the complete and important daily Current Affairs Quiz 29 December 2023 to achieve more marks in Banking, Insurance, UPSC, SSC, CLAT, Railways and all other competitive Exams. We have prepared the current affairs quiz question from our daily current affairs 2023 updates.
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- Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the assent given to the various bills by the President of India Droupadi Murmu in December 2023?
A) The President of India Droupadi Murmu gave assent to three new criminal bills: Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita (BNS2), 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita(BNSS2), 2023; and Bharatiya Sakshya (Second) Adhiniyam, 2023.
B) The three new criminal bills will replace the British-colonial era laws: the Indian Penal Code(IPC), 1860; the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act(IEA), 1872 respectively.
C) President of India also gave assent to the Telecommunications Bill, 2023 which repealed the Indian Telegraph Act (2000), the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act (2005).
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & CAnswer-2) Only A & B
Explanation:
On 25th December 2023, the President of India Droupadi Murmu gave assent to three new criminal bills: Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita (BNS2), 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita(BNSS2), 2023; and Bharatiya Sakshya (Second) Adhiniyam, 2023.
The three new criminal bills will replace the British-colonial era laws: the Indian Penal Code(IPC), 1860; the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act(IEA), 1872 respectively.
She also gave assent to the Telecommunications Bill, 2023 and Post Office Bill, 2023.
i. Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita or BNS2, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) 1860.
The new bill includes acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; terrorism; Organised crime; kidnapping, extortion and cyber-crime committed on behalf of a crime syndicate and Petty organised crime as an offence.
The bill also considers murder by a group of 5 or more persons on grounds of caste, language or personal belief as an offence.
Age of criminal responsibility is retained at 7 years.
ii. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita (BNSS2), 2023 replaced the CrPC, 1973. It governs the procedure for investigation, arrest, prosecution and bail for offence.
According to CrPC, an accused who has spent half of the maximum period of imprisonment in jail, has the right to get bail. This does not apply to offences punishable by death.
As per BNSS2, this provision will also not apply to, i. Offences punishable by life imprisonment. ii. Persons against whom proceedings are pending in more than one offence.
It also adds that 1st time-offenders can get bail after serving 1/3rd of maximum sentence.
iii. Bharatiya Sakshya (Second) Adhiniyam, 2023, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act(IEA), 1872.
It retains most provisions of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 such as: confessions, relevancy of facts and burden of proof.
It recognizes electronic records as primary evidence. It expands such records to include information stored in any communication devices such as laptops and smartphones.
The BSB2 retains original classification of evidence i.e. documentary or oral. It classifies electronic records as documents.
iv. Telecommunications Bill 2023 repealed the Indian Telegraph Act (1885), the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act (1933) and the Telegraph Wires (Unlawful Possession) Act 1950 and amended the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) Act, 1997.
The Telecommunications Bill, 2023 falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Communication.
v. The enactment of the Post Office Bill 2023 will replace the 125-year-old Indian Post Office Act 1898.
The Post Office Act 2023 authorises post office employees to open or detain any item during transmission in the interest of national security or public safety. - In December 2023, Union Minister of Home Affairs and Cooperation Amit Shah released a commemorative Postal Stamp to mark the ______ year of Pandit Jasraj Motiram’s music festival ‘Pandit Motiram Pandit Maniram Sangeet Samaroha’ in New Delhi, Delhi.
1) 60th
2) 50th
3) 70th
4) 25th
5) 75thAnswer-2) 50th
Explanation:
Union Minister Amit Shah, Ministry of Home Affairs (MoHA) and Ministry of Cooperation (MoC), has released a commemorative Postal Stamp to mark 50th year of Pandit Jasraj Motiram’s music festival ‘Pandit Motiram Pandit Maniram Sangeet Samaroha’ in New Delhi, Delhi.
The Pandit Motiram Pandit Maniram Sangeet Samaroha is an annual Indian classical music festival held at Chowmahalla Palace in Hyderabad, Telangana. It is also the oldest festival of Hyderabad.
The festival was first initiated in 1972 by Pandit Jasraj in memory of his father ‘Sangeet Ratna Pandit Motiram’ and uncle ‘Pandit Maniram’ and the 51st edition of the musical festival titled ‘Jai Ho Pandit Jasraj’,was observed from 24th to 30th November 2023 by Pandit Jasraj Cultural Foundation.
i. Pandit Jasraj is an Indian classical vocalist, belonging to the Mewati gharana (a musical apprenticeship tribe of Hindustani classical music). He was nicknamed the “Son of Hyderabad.”
He was a recipient of the Padma Shri (1975), Padma Bhushan (1990) and Padma Vibhushan (2000) in the field of art.
Note- Vice-President (VP) of India Jagdeep Dhankhar has released a special postal cover to celebrate the 100th Birth Anniversary of Late Justice Konda Madhava Reddy in Hyderabad, Telangana. - Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent step made by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in December 2023?
A) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gave its nod for the reverse merger of IDFC Limited and IDFC Financial Holding Company (IDFC FHCL) with its banking subsidiary IDFC First Bank Limited.
B) RBI has notified RBI (Government Securities Lending/GSL) Directions, 2023 which states that Central Government-issued G-Secs (excluding Treasury Bills/T-Bills) qualify for lending/borrowing in GSL transactions.
C) Central and State Government-issued G-Secs (including Treasury Bills) qualify as collateral in GSL transactions.
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only AAnswer-1) All A, B & C
Explanation:
On December 26, 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gave its nod for the reverse merger of IDFC Limited and IDFC Financial Holding Company (IDFC FHCL) with its banking subsidiary IDFC First Bank Limited.
As part of the composite scheme of amalgamation, IDFC FHCL would first merge with IDFC and then IDFC into IDFC First Bank Ltd.
As a part of amalgamation, an IDFC shareholder will get 155 shares for every 100 shares she/he holds in the bank.
i. RBI has notified RBI (Government Securities Lending/GSL) Directions, 2023 in exercise of the powers conferred under section 45W of the RBI Act, 1934 read with section 45U of the Act and of all the powers enabling it in this behalf w.e.f. December 27, 2023. This decision has been taken to deepen the bond market.
These directions will enable Lending and borrowing of Government Securities (G-Secs) in all GSL transactions., undertaken in Over-the-Counter (OTC) markets.
ii. Central Government-issued G-Secs (excluding Treasury Bills/T-Bills) qualify for lending/borrowing in GSL transactions.
Securities obtained under a repo transaction, including through Reserve Bank’s Liquidity Adjustment Facility or borrowed in another GSL transaction are also eligible for lending in GSL transactions.
iii. Central and State Government-issued G-Secs (including Treasury Bills) qualify as collateral in GSL transactions.
Securities obtained under a repo transaction, including through Reserve Bank’s Liquidity Adjustment Facility or borrowed in another GSL transaction are also eligible for placement as collateral in GSL transactions.
iv. Securities borrowed under a GSL transaction can be counted for SLR by the borrower, but not by the lender. Collateral received under GSL is eligible for SLR by the lender, while the borrower cannot count it for SLR. - In December, 2023, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) extended the deadline to add nominees for Demat Accounts (Dematerialisation Account) and mutual fund portfolios to __________.
1) 31st March 2024
2) 30th June 2024
3) 31st May 2024
4) 30th April 2024
5) 31st July 2024Answer-2) 30th June 2024
Explanation:
On December 27, 2023, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) extended the deadline to add nominees for Demat Accounts (Dematerialisation Account) and mutual fund portfolios to June 30, 2024. Earlier the deadline was December 31, 2023.
This aims to help the investors to secure their assets and pass them on to their legal heirs.
i. This information by SEBI was provided in exercise of powers conferred by Section 11(1) of the SEBI Act, 1992, read with Section 19 of the Depositories Act, 1996 and Regulation 77 of SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of securities market. - Which bank has recently (in Dec ‘23) re-appointment Atanu Chakraborty as the Part-Time Non-Executive Chairman and Independent Director for a second term of 3 years?
1) YES Bank
2) ICICI Bank
3) Axis Bank
4) HDFC Bank
5) IndusInd BankAnswer-4) HDFC Bank
Explanation:
The Board of Directors of HDFC Bank Limited has recommended the re-appointment of Atanu Chakraborty as the Part-Time Non-Executive Chairman and Independent Director of the Bank to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a second term of 3 years with effect from 5th May 2024 to 4th May 2027.
i. He was appointed to the post in May 2021 and his first tenure of 3 years is set to end on 4th May, 2024.
ii. In 2019, he served on the board of the World Bank(WB) as Alternate Governor as well as on the Central Board of Directors of the RBI. - In December 2023, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the appointment of Chandra Shekhar Rajan as the Part-time Chairman of ____________(Bank).
1) Kotak Mahindra Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) ICICI Bank
4) HDFC Bank
5) YES BankAnswer-1) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Explanation:
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the appointment of Chandra Shekhar Rajan (C S Rajan) as the Part-time Chairman of Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL) for two years with effect from 1st January 2024.
i. C S Rajan is serving as an Additional and Independent Director on KMBL’s Board (since 2022).
ii. He will be replacing incumbent Non-Executive Independent Part-time Chairman, Prakash Apte who is set to retire on 31st December 2023. - Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the recent approval made by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in December 2023?
A) The CCI has approved the acquisition of controlling stakes in Tata Capital Limited by IndusInd International Holdings Limited (IIHL), IIHL BFSI (India) Limited (IIHL BFSI), and Aasia Enterprises LLP (Aasia).
B) CCI approved the acquisition of a 9.99 % equity stake in Dilip Buildcon Limited (DBL) by Alpha Alternatives Holdings Pvt Ltd (AAHPL) and its other entities.
C) CCI has approved the proposal made by PCBL Limited to acquire 100% paid-up share capital in Pune-based Aquapharm Chemicals Private Limited (ACPL).
1) All A, B & C
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only AAnswer-3) Only B & C
Explanation:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the acquisition of controlling stakes in Reliance Capital Limited (RCL) by IndusInd International Holdings Limited (IIHL), IIHL BFSI (India) Limited (IIHL BFSI), and Aasia Enterprises LLP (Aasia).
At present, RCL is going through insolvency resolution proceedings initiated under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
Post transaction, IIHL along with other entities, will have a controlling stake in RCL.
i. CCI approved the acquisition of a 9.99 % equity stake in Dilip Buildcon Limited (DBL) by Alpha Alternatives Holdings Pvt Ltd (AAHPL) and its other entities.
ii. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the proposal made by Kolkata (West Bengal) based PCBL Limited (formerly known as Phillips Carbon Black Limited) to acquire 100% paid-up share capital in Pune-based Aquapharm Chemicals Private Limited (ACPL).
The deal is worth Rs 3,800 crore and was approved under the Green Channel route. - Which organisation has recently (in Dec ‘23) launched OSIRIS-APEX (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, and Security – Apophis Explorer) to study the asteroid Apophis and take advantage of the asteroid’s 2029 flyby of Earth?
1) China National Space Administration
2) European Space Agency
3) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
4) SpaceX
5) Canadian Space AgencyAnswer-3) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Explanation:
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched OSIRIS-APEX (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, and Security – Apophis Explorer) to study the asteroid Apophis and take advantage of the asteroid’s 2029 flyby of Earth.
i. Asteroid 99942 Apophis is named for the demon serpent “Apophis” of the ancient Egyptian mythology, which personifies evil and chaos. It is also known as “God of Chaos”.
ii. Apophis is expected to pass close, within 19,794 miles (31,860 kilometers), to Earth surface on 13th April 2029. - In December 2023, Tamil actor & the founder of Desiya Murpokku Dravida Kazhagam (DMDK), Vijayakanth, passed away.
In which year, he received the ‘Best Indian Citizen Award by the Government of India’ for promoting patriotism?
1) 2003
2) 2005
3) 2002
4) 2004
5) 2001Answer-5) 2001
Explanation:
Tamil actor and the founder of Desiya Murpokku Dravida Kazhagam (DMDK), Vijayakanth, passed away in Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN). DMDK is a regional political party in TN.
He started his career as an actor in Tamil cinema in 1979 and acted in more than 150 films. He was the President of the South Indian Artistes Association (SIAA) from 2001 to 2006.
As a politician.Vijayakanth started his political career in 2005 by forming DMDK and contested in 2006 TN Legislative Assembly Election.
He served as a Leader of the Opposition in TN Legislative Assembly from 2011 to 2016.
While the national and regional political parties were dominating TN (both ruling and opposition) (over 40 years), DMDK emerged as the first regional party to host an opposition leader in the TN Assembly.
i. Honours:
In 2001, the Government of India (GoI) honoured him with the ‘Best Indian Citizen Award by the Government of India’ for promoting patriotism.
The Government of TN honoured him with ‘Kalaimamani Award’ in 2001.
Vijayakanth won the Filmfare Awards South for Best Actor in 1987 for the movie ‘Amman Koil Kizhakkaalae.’ - Who has been recently (in Dec ‘23) appointed as the Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court?
1) Prasanna B. Varale
2) Sunita Agarwal
3) Shree Chandrashekhar
4) Dhiraj Singh Thakur
5) Ravi MalimathAnswer-3) Shree Chandrashekhar
Explanation:
Droupadi Murmu, the President of India, by exercising her powers conferred by Article 223 of the Constitution of India, has appointed Shree Chandrashekhar as Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court with effect from 29th December 2023.
Chandrashekhar was serving as the Judge of the Jharkhand High Court.
Chandrashekhar replaced Sanjaya Kumar Mishra who retired on 28th December 2023.
He was initially appointed as Additional Judge of the Jharkhand High Court in 2013 and he was made the Judge of the High Court of Jharkhand in 2014.
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